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The Law and the Saint
By: Arthur W. Pink
3. THE POSITIVE SIDE
What is the
relation of the Law (the Ten Commandments) to Christians? In our previous chapter we
pointed out how that three radically different answers have been returned to this
question. The first, that sinners become saints by obeying the Law. This is
Legalism pure and simple. It is heresy of the most dangerous kind. All who really believe
and act on it as the ground of their acceptance by God, will perish eternally. Second,
others say that the Law is not binding on Christians because it has been abolished.
This is, we are fully assured, a serious error. It arises from a mistaken interpretation
of certain passages in the Epistles. The inevitable tendency of such an error is toward
Antinomianism, the "turning of the grace of God into lasciviousness" (Jude 4).
Third, others affirm, and the writer is among the number, that the Ten Commandments are an
expression of the unchanging character and will of God: that they are a moral standard of
conduct which we disregard at our peril: that they are, and will ever be, binding
upon every Christian.
In our last chapter we sought to prepare the way for the
present one. There, we dealt with the negative side; here, we shall treat of the positive.
In the former, we sought to give the true meaning of the principal passages in the New
Testament appealed to by those who deny that the Ten Commandments are now binding
on Christians. In the present chapter, we shall endeavor to expound some of the many
passages in the New Testament which affirm that the Ten Commandments are now
binding on Christians. We, therefore, invite the reader's most diligent and prayerful
attention to the scriptures cited and our comments upon them.
1. "Think not that I am come to destroy the Law, or the
Prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven
and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in nowise pass from the Law, till all be
fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall
teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall
do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven" (Matt.
5:17-19). It might appear to the disciples of Christ that their Master intended to set
aside Moses and the Prophets, and introduce an entirely new standard of morality. It was
true indeed that He would expose the error of depending on the work of the Law for
acceptance with God (as Moses and the prophets had done before Him); but it was no part of
His design to set aside the Law itself. He was about to correct various corruptions, which
obtained among the Jews, hence He is careful to preface what He has to say by cautioning
them not to misconstrue His designs. So far from having any intention of repudiating
Moses, He most emphatically asserts: first, that He had not come to destroy the Law;
second, that He had come to "fulfill" it; third, that the Law is of perpetual
obligation; fourth, that whoso breaks one of the least of the Law's commandments and
teaches other so to do, shall suffer loss; fifth, that he who kept the Law and taught men
to respect and obey it should be rewarded.
"I am not come to destroy the Law" - the Prophets
simply expounded the Law, and rebuked Israel for their failure to keep it, and forwarned
them of the consequences of continued disobedience. "I am not come to destroy
the Law." Nothing could be more explicit. The word "destroy" here means
"to dissolve or overthrow". When, then, our Lord said that He had not come to
destroy the Law He gave us to understand that it was not the purpose of His mission to
repeal or annul the Ten Commandments: that he had not come to free men from their
obligations to them. And if He did not "destroy" the Law, then no one had
destroyed it; and if no one has destroyed it, then the Law still stands with all its
Divine authority; and if the Law still abides as the unchanging expression of God's
character and will, then every human creature is under lasting obligation to obey it; and
if every human creature, then the Christian!
Second, the Son of God went on to say "I am not come to
destroy, but to fulfill". The word "fulfill" here means "to fill up,
to complete". Christ "fulfilled" the Law in three ways: first, by rendering
personal obedience to its precepts. God's Law was within His heart (Psa. 40:8), and in
thought, word and deed, He perfectly met its requirements; and thus by His obedience He
magnified the Law and made it honorable (Isa. 42:21). Second, by suffering (at the Cross)
its death-penalty on behalf of His people who had transgressed it. Third, by exhibiting
its fulness and spirituality and by amplifying its contents. Thus did Christ, our
Exemplar, "fulfill the Law."
So far from Christ having repealed the Law, He expressly
affirmed, "Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in nowise pass
from the Law, till all be fulfilled." In these words He announces the perpetuity of
the Law. So long as heaven and earth shall last, the Law will endure, and by necessary
implication, the lasting obligations of all men to fulfill it.
But this is not all that our Lord here said. With omniscient
foresight He anticipated what Mr. Mead has aptly termed "The Modern Outcry against
the Law", and proceeds to solemnly warn against it. He said, "Whosoever
therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be
called the least in the kingdom of heaven".
2. "Do we then make void the Law through faith? God
forbid: yea, we establish the Law" (Rom. 3:31). In the previous part of the chapter
the apostle had proven that "there is none righteous, no not one" (v. 10);
second, he had declared "By the deeds of the Law there shall no flesh be
justified" (v. 2); then in vv. 21-26 he had set forth the Divine way of salvation -
"through faith in Christ's blood". In v.28, he sums up his argument by affirming
"a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the Law". In vv. 29,30 he
proves that this is true for Jew and Gentile alike. Then, in v.31, he anticipates an
objection: What about the Law, then? This was a very pertinent question. Twice had he said
that justification was apart from the deeds of the Law. If, then, the Law served no
purpose in effecting the salvation of sinners, has it no office at all? If we are saved
"through faith" is the Law useless? Are we to understand you to mean (Paul) that
the Law has been annulled? Not at all, is the apostle's answer: "We establish the
Law."
What did the apostle mean when he said "we establish
the Law"? He meant that, as saved men, Christians are under additional
obligations to obey the Law, for they are now furnished with new and more powerful motives
to serve God. Righteousness imputed to the believer produces in the justified one a kind
and an extent of obedience which could not otherwise have been obtained. So far from
rendering void or nullifying the authority and use of the Law, it sustains and confirms
them. Our moral obligation to God and our neighbor has not been weakened, but
strengthened. Below we offer one or two brief excerpts from other expositors.
"Does not the doctrine of faith evacuate the Old
Testament of its meaning, and does it not make law void, and lead to disregard of it? Does
it not open the door to license of living? To this the apostle replies, that it certainly
does not; but that, on the contrary, the Gospel puts law on a proper basis and establishes
it on its foundation as a revelation of God's will" (Dr. Griffith-Thomas).
"We cancel law, then, by this faith of ours? We open
the door, then, to moral license? We abolish code and precept, then, when we ask not for
conduct, but for faith? Away with the thought; nay, we establish law; we go the very way
to give a new sacredness to its every command, and to disclose a new power for the
fulfillment of them all. But how this is, and is to be, the later argument is to
show" (Dr. Handley Moule).
"Objection. If man is justified by faith without
works, does not that do away with law entirely, i.e. teach lawlessness? Answer: By
no means. It establishes the law. When a man is saved by grace, that does not make him
lawless. There is a power within him which does not destroy, but it strengthens the law,
and causes him to keep it, not through fear, but through love of God" (H. S. Miller,
M.A.).
3. "For I delight in the law of God after the inward
man...with the mind I myself serve the Law of God" (Rom 7:22-25). In this chapter the
apostle does two things: first, he shows what is not and what is the Law's relation to the
believer - judicially, the believer is emancipated from the curse or penalty of the Law
(7:1-6); morally, the believer is under bonds to obey the Law (vv. 22,25). Secondly, he
guards against a false inference being drawn from what he had taught in chapter 6. In
6:1-11 he sets forth the believer's identification with Christ as "dead to
sin" (vv. 2,7, etc.). Then, from v. 11 onwards, he shows the effect this truth should
have upon the believer's walk. In chapter 7 he follows the same order of thought. In 7:1-6
he treats of the believer's identification with Christ as "dead to the
law" (see vv. 4 and 6). Then, from v. 7 onwards he describes the experiences of the
Christian. Thus the first half of Rom. 6 and the first half of Rom. 7 deal with the
believer's standing, whereas the second half of each chapter treats of the
believer's state; but with this difference: the second half of Rom. 6 reveals what
our state ought to be, whereas the second half of Rom. 7 (vv. 13-25) shows what our state actually
is.[6]
The controversy which has raged over Rom. 7 is largely the
fruitage of the Perfectionism of Wesley and his followers. That brethren, whom we have
cause to respect, should have adopted this error in a modified form, only shows how
widespread today is the spirit of Laodiceanism. To talk of "getting out of Rom. 7
into Rom. 8" is excuseless folly. Rom. 7 and 8 both apply with undiminished force and
pertinence to every believer on earth today. The second half of Rom. 7 describes the
conflict of the two natures in the child of God: it simply sets forth in detail what is
summarized in Gal. 5:17. Rom. 7:14,15,18,19,21 are far short of the standard set before
him - we mean God's standard, not that of the so-called "victorious life"
teachers. If any Christian reader is ready to say that Rom. 7:19 does not describe his
life, we say in all kindness, that he is sadly deceived. We do not mean by this that every
Christian breaks the laws of men, or that he is an overt transgressor of the laws of God.
But we do mean that his life is far, far below the level of the life our Saviour lived
here on earth. We do mean that there is much of "the flesh" still evident in
every Christian - not the least in those who make such loud boastings of their spiritual
attainments. We do mean that every Christian has urgent need to daily pray for the
forgiveness of his daily sins (Luke 11:4), for "in many things we all stumble"
(James 3:2, R.V.).
The second half of Rom. 7, then, is describing the state of
the Christian, i.e. the conflict between the two natures within him. In v. 14 the apostle
declares, "We know that the Law is spiritual". How different is this language
from the disparaging way that many now refer to God's Law! In v. 22 he exclaims, "I
delight in the Law of God after the inward man". How far removed is this from the
delusion that the Law has been abolished, and that it no longer serves any purpose for the
Christian! The apostle Paul did not ignore the Law, still less did he regard it as an
enemy. The new nature within him delighted in it: so, too, did the Psalmist, see Psa.
119:72, 97, 140. But the old nature was still within him too, warring against the new, and
bringing him into captivity to the law of sin, so that he cried, "O wretched man that
I am! Who shall deliver me from the body of this death" (v.24) - and we sincerely
pity every professing Christian who does not echo this cry. Next the apostle thanks God
that he shall be delivered yet "through Jesus Christ our Lord" (v. 25), not
"by the power of the Holy Spirit" note! The deliverance is future, at the return
of Christ, see Phil. 3:20, etc. Finally, and mark that this comes after he had
spoken of the promised "deliverance", he sums up his dual experience by saying,
"So then with the mind I myself serve the Law of God; but with the flesh the law of
sin". Could anything be plainer? Instead of affirming that the Law had nothing to do
with him as a Christian, nor he with it, he expressly declared that he served "the
Law of God". This is sufficient for us. Let others refuse to "serve" the
Law of God at their peril.
4. "For what the Law could not do, in that it was weak
through the flesh, God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin,
condemned sin in the flesh. That the righteousness of the Law might be fulfilled
in us, who walk not after the flesh but after the spirit" (Rom. 8:3,4). This
throws light on Rom. 3:31, showing us, in part, how the Law is established". The
reference here is to the new nature. The believer now has a heart that loves God, and
therefore does it "delight in the Law of God". And it is ever at the heart that
God looks, though, of course, He takes note of our actions too. But in heart the believer
"fulfills" the holy requirements of God's Law, inasmuch as his innermost desire
is to serve, please, and glorify the Law-giver. The righteous requirements of the Law are
"fulfilled" in us because we now obey from the heart (Rom. 6:17).
5. "He that loveth another hath fulfilled the Law. For
this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou
shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment,
it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as
thyself. Love worketh no ill to his neighbour; therefore love is the fulfilling of the
Law" (Rom. 13:8-10). Here again, the apostle, so far from lending the slightest
encouragement to the strange delusion that the Ten Commandments have become obsolete to
Christians, actually quotes five of them, and then declares, "Love is the fulfilling
of the Law". Love is not a substitution for Law-obedience, but it is that which
prompts the believer to render obedience to it. Note carefully, it is not "love
is the abrogating of the Law", but "love is the fulfilling of the Law".
"The whole Law is grounded on love to God and love to man. This cannot be violated
without the breach of Law; and if there is love, it will influence us to the observance of
all God's commandments" (Haldane). Love is the fulfilling of the Law because love is
what the Law demands. The prohibitions of the Law are not unreasonable restraints on
Christian liberty, but the just and wise requirements of love. We may add that the above
is another passage which serves to explain Rom. 3:31, for it supplies a practical
exemplification of the way in which the Gospel establishes the Law as the expression of
the Divine will, which love alone can fulfill.
6. "For though I be free from all men, yet have I made
myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more. And unto the Jews I became as a Jew,
that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the Law; as under the Law, that i might
gain them that are under the Law; to them that are without Law, as without Law, (being not
without Law to God, but under the Law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without
Law" (1 Cor. 9:19-22). The central thought of this passage is how the apostle
forewent his Christian liberty for the sake of the Gospel. Though "free" from
all, he nevertheless, made himself "the servant" of all. To the unconverted Jews
he "became a Jew;" Acts 16:3 supplies an illustration. To those who deemed
themselves to be yet under the ceremonial law, he acted accordingly: Acts 21:26 supplies
an example of this. To them without Law: that is, Gentiles without the ceremonial law, he
abstained from the use of all ceremonies as they did: cf. Gal. 2:3. Yet, he did not act as
"without Law to God", but instead, as "under the Law to Christ"; that
is, as still under the moral Law of God. He never counted himself free from that, nor
would he do anything contrary to the eternal Law of righteousness. To be "under Law
to God", is, without question, to be under the God. Therefore, to be under the Law of
Christ, is to be under the Law of God, for the Law was not abrogated but reinforced by
Christ. This text, then, gives a plain and decisive answer to the question, How the
believer is under the Law of God, namely, as he is "under the Law to Christ",
belonging to Christ, as he does, by redemption.
7. "For, brethren, ye have been called unto liberty;
only use not liberty for an occasion to the flesh, but by love serve one another. For all
the Law is fulfilled in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbor as
thyself" (Gal. 5:13,14). Here the apostle first reminds the Galatian saints (and us)
that they had been called unto "liberty", i.e., from the curse of the moral Law
(3:13). Second, he defines the bounds of that liberty, and shows that it must not
deteriorate to fleshly license, but that it is bounded by the requirements of the
unchanging moral Law of God, which requires that we love our neighbor as ourselves. Third,
he repeats here, what he had said in Rom. 13:8-10, namely, that love is the fulfilling of
the Law. The new commandment of love to our brethren is comprehended in the old
commandment of love to our neighbor, hence the former is enforced by an appeal to the
latter.
"For, brethren, ye have been called unto liberty; only
use not liberty for an occasion to the flesh, but by love serve one another" (Gal.
5:13). We quote here part of the late Dr. George Bishop's comments on this verse:
"The apostle here emphasizes a danger. The believer before believing, relied upon his
works to save him. After believing, seeing he is in no way saved by his works, he is in
danger of despising good works and minifying their value. At first he was an Arminian
living by law; now he is in danger of becoming an Antinomian and flinging away the law
altogether.
"But the law is holy and the commandment holy, and
just, and good. It is God's standard - the eternal Norm. Fulfilled by Christ for us, it
still remains the swerveless and unerring rule of righteousness. We are without the law
for salvation, but not without the law for obedience. Angels are under the law `doing
God's commandments, hearkening to the voice of His word' (Psa. 103:20). The law then is
immutable - its reign universal and without exception. The law! It is the transcript of
the Divine perfection: the standard of eternal justice: the joy and rapture of all holy
beings. The law! We are above it for salvation, but under it, or rather in it and it in
us, as a principle of holiness" (Grace in Galatians).
8. "Children obey your parents in the Lord: for this is
right. Honour thy father and mother; which is the first commandment with promise; That it
may be well with thee, and thou mayest live long on the earth" (Eph. 6:1-3). Once
more we have a direct quotation from the tables of stone as the regulator of the Christian
conscience. First, the apostle bids children obey their parents in the Lord. Second, he
enforces this by an appeal to the fifth commandment in the Decalogue. What a proof this is
that the Christian is under the Law (for the apostle is writing to Christians), under it
"to Christ". Third, not only does the apostle here quote the fifth commandment,
but he reminds us that there is a promise annexed to it, a promise concerning the
prolongation of earthly life. How this refutes those who declare that our blessings are
all spiritual and heavenly )Eph. 1:3). Let the ones who are constantly criticizing those
who press on the children of God the scriptures which have to do with our earthly walk,
and who term this a "coming down from our position in the heavenlies' weigh carefully
Eph. 6:2,3 and also 1 Tim. 4:8 - "For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness
is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which
is to come"; and let them also study 1 Pet. 3:10. In the administration of His
government, God acts upon immutable principles.[7]
9. "But we know that the Law is good, if a man use it
lawfully" (1 Tim. 1:8). The Law is used unlawfully, when sinners rest on their
imperfect obedience to it as the ground of their acceptance by God. So, too, believers use
it unlawfully, when they obey its precepts out of servile fear. But used lawfully, the Law
is good. This could never have been said if the Law is an enemy to be shunned. Nor could
it have been said if it has been repealed for the Christian. In that case, the apostle
would have said, "The Law is not binding upon us". But he did not so say.
Instead, he declared "The Law if good". He said more than that, he affirmed,
"We know that the Law is good". It is not a debateable point, rather is it one
that has been Divinely settled for us. But the Law is only "good" if a man
(Greek, any one) use it lawfully. To use the Law lawfully is to regard it as the
unchanging expression of the Will of God, and therefore to "delight" in it. To
use the Law lawfully is to receive it as the corrector of our conduct. To use the Law
lawfully is to "fulfill" it in love.
10. "Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will
make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah...this is the
covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I
will put My laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a
God, and they shall be to Me a people" (Heb. 8:8,10). Let it be carefully noted that
this passage unmistakably demonstrates two things: first, it proves conclusively that the
Law has not been "abolished"! Second, it proves that the Law does have a use and
value for those that are saved, for it is saved Israel that is here in view! Nor is there
any possible room for doubt as to whether or not this applies to Gentile Christians now.
The passage just quoted refers to "the new
covenant". Is the new covenant restricted to Israel? Emphatically no. Did not our
Saviour say at the Holy Supper, "This is My blood of the new covenant, which is
poured out for many for the remission of sins" (Matt. 26:28, R.V.)? Was Christ's
blood of the new covenant limited to Israel? Certainly not. Note how the apostle quotes
our Lord's words when writing to the Corinthians, see 1 Cor. 11:25. So, too, in 2 Cor. 3:6
the apostle Paul declares that God has made us (not is going to make us) "ministers
of the new covenant". This is proof positive that Christians are under the new
covenant. The new covenant is made with all that Christ died for, and therefore Heb.
8:8-10 assures us that God puts His laws into the minds and writes them upon the hearts of
every one of His redeemed.
But so anxious are some to grasp at everything which they
imagine favors their contention that in no sense are believers under the Law, this passage
is sometimes appealed to in support. It is argued that since God has now (by regeneration)
written the Law on the believer's heart, He no longer needs any outward commandments to
rule and direct him. Inward principle, it is said, will now move him spontaneously, so
that all need for external law is removed. This error was so ably exposed fifty years ago
by Dr. Martin, we transcribe a part of his refutation:
"How was it with our first parents? If ever outward
law, categorical and imperative, might have been dispensed with, it might in Adam's case.
In all the compass of his nature, there was nothing adverse to the law of God. He was a
law unto himself. He was the moral law unto himself; loving God with all his heart, and
his neighbour as himself, in all things content, in nothing coveting. Was imperative,
authoritative, sovereign commandment therefore utterly unnecessary? Did God see it to be
needless to say to him, Thou shalt, or, Thou shalt not? It was the very thing that
infinite wisdom saw he needed. And therefore did He give commandment - "Thou shalt
not eat of it".
"How was it with the last Adam? All God's law was in
His heart operating there, an inward principle of grace; He surely, if any, might have
dispensed with strict, imperative, authoritative law and commandment. `I delight to do Thy
will, O God; Thy law also is within My heart". Was no commandment, therefore, laid
upon - no obedience-statute ordained - unto Him? Or did He complain if there was? Nay; I
hear Him specially rejoicing in it. Every word He uttered, every work He did, was by
commandment: `My Father which sent me, He gave Me commandment what I should say and what I
should do; as He gave me commandment therefore, so I speak'.
"And shall His members, though the regenerating Spirit
dwells in them, claim an exemption from what the Son was not exempt? Shall believers,
because the Spirit puts the law into their hearts, claim a right to act merely at the
dictate of inward gracious principle, untrammeled, uncontrolled by outward peremptory
statute? I appeal to Paul in the seventh chapter of the Romans, where he says: "The
law is holy', and adds, as if to show that it was no inward actuating law of the heart,
but God's outward commanding law to the will: `the law is holy, and the commandment is
holy, and just, and good'. And I appeal to the sweet singer of Israel, as I find him in
the 119th Psalm, which is throughout the breathing of a heart in which the law of God is
written, owning himself with joy as under peremptory external law: `Thou hast commanded us
to keep Thy precepts diligently'".
11. If ye fulfill the royal Law according to the scripture,
Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well" (James 2:8). The immediate
purpose of the apostle was to correct an evil - common in all climes and ages - of which
his brethren were guilty. They had paid deference to the wealthy, and shown them greater
respect than the poor who attended their assembly (see preceding verses). They had, in
fact, "despised the poor" (v.6). The result was that the worthy name of Christ
had been "blasphemed" (v.7). Now it is striking to observe the method followed
and the ground of appeal made by the apostle James in correcting this evil.
First, he says, "If ye fulfill the royal law according
to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well: but if ye have
respect of persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the Law as transgressors"
(vv. 8,9). He shows that in despising the poor they had transgressed the Law, for the Law
says, "Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself". Here then, if proof positive
that the Law was binding upon those to whom James wrote, for it is impossible for one who
is in every sense "dead to the Law" to be a "transgressor" of it. And
here, it is probable that some will raise the quibble that the Epistle of James is Jewish.
True, the Epistle is addressed to the twelve tribes scattered abroad. Yet it cannot be
gainsaid that the apostle was writing to men of faith (1:3); men who had been regenerated
- "begotten" (1:18); men who were called by the worthy name of Christ (2:7), and
therefore Christians. And it is to them the apostle here appeals to the Law! - another
conclusive proof that the Law has not been abolished.
The apostle here terms the Law, "the royal Law".
This was to empathize its authority, and to remind his regenerated brethren that the
slightest deflection from it was rebellion. The royal Law also calls attention to the
supreme dignity of its Author. This royal Law, we learn, is transcribed in the Scriptures
- the reference here was, of course, to the Old Testament Scriptures.
Next, the apostle says, "For whosoever shall keep the
whole Law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For He that said, Do not
commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill,
thou are become a transgressor of the Law" (vv. 10,11). His purpose is evident. He
presses on those to whom he writes that, he who fails to love his neighbour is just as
much and just as truly a transgressor of the Law as the man who is guilty of adultery or
murder, for he has rebelled against the authority of the One who gave the whole Law. In
this quotation of the 6th and 7th commandments all doubt is removed as to what
"Law" is in view in this passage.
Finally, the apostle says, "So speak ye, and so do, as
they that shall be judged by the Law of liberty. For he shall have judgment without mercy,
that hath showed no mercy; and mercy rejoiceth against judgment" (vv. 12,13). This is
solemn and urgently needs pressing upon the Lord's people today: Christians are going to
be "judged by the Law"! The Law is God's unchanging standard of conduct for all;
and all alike, saints and sinners, are going to be weighed in its balances; not of course,
in order to determine their eternal destiny, but to settle the apportionment of reward and
punishment. It should be obvious to all that the very word "reward" implies
obedience to the Law! Let it be repeated, though, that this judgment for Christians has
nothing whatever to do with their salvation. Instead, it is to determine the measure of
reward which they shall enjoy in Heaven. Should any object against the idea of any future
judgment (not punishment but judgment) for Christians, we would ask them to carefully
ponder 1 Cor. 11:31, 32: 2 Tim. 4:1; Heb. 10:30 - in each case the Greek word is the same
as here in James 2:12.
It should be noted that the apostle here terms the Law by
which we shall be judged "the Law of liberty". It is, of course, the same as
"the royal Law" in v. 8. But why term it the Law of liberty? Because such it is
to the Christian. He obeys it (or should do) not from fear, but out of love. The only true
"liberty" lies in complete subjection to God. There was, too, a peculiar
propriety in the apostle James here styling the Law of God "the Law of liberty".
His brethren had been guilty of "respecting persons", showing undue deference to
the rich; and this was indeed servility of the worst kind. But to "love our
neighbour" will free us from this.
12. Other passages in the New Testament which show more
directly the bearing of the Law on believers might be quoted, but we close, by calling
attention to 1 John 2:6: "He that saith he abideth in Him ought himself also so to
walk, even as He walked" (1 John 2:6). This is very simple, and yet deeply important.
The believer is here exhorted to regulate his walk by that of the walk of Christ. How did
He walk? We answer, in perfect obedience to the Law of God. Gal. 4:4 tells us, "God
sent forth His Son, made of a woman, made under the Law." Psa. 40:8 declares
that God's Law was in His heart. Everything recorded about the Saviour in the four
Gospels evidences His complete subjection to the Law. If, then, the Christian desires to
honor and please God, if he would walk as Christ walked, then must he regulate his conduct
by and render obedience to the Ten Commandments. Not that we would for a moment
insist that the Christian has nothing more than the Ten Commandments by which to
regulate his conduct. No; Christ came to "fulfill" the Law, and as we have
intimated, one thing this means is that, He has brought out the fulness of its contents,
He has brought to light its exceeding spirituality, He has shown us (both directly and
through His apostles) its manifold application. But whatever amplification the Law has
received in the New Testament, nothing has been given by God which in any wise conflicts
with what he first imprinted on man's moral nature, and afterwards wrote with His own
finger at Sinai, nothing that in the slightest modifies its authority or our obligation to
render obedience to it.
May the Holy Spirit so enlighten our sin-darkened
understandings and so draw out our hearts unto God, that we shall truthfully say,
"The Law of Thy mouth is better unto me than thousands of gold and silver...O how
love I Thy law! it is my meditation all the day" (Psa. 119:72-97).
[6] Vv. 8-12 are more or less in the nature of a parenthesis.
[7] That some obedient children are short-lived no more belies the Word of God than that some diligent men are poor, yet Prov. 10:4 says, "The hand of the diligent maketh rich:" The truth is, that these promises reveal the general purpose of God, but He always reserves to Himself the sovereign right to make whom He pleases exceptions to the general rule.
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